European Boycotts of West Bank Products Based on Faulty Premises
If the Israeli presence in the
West Bank, and the "settlements" from 1967 on, are the root cause of the
conflict between the Israelis and the Palestinians, then why does
Article 14 of the 1964 PLO Charter call for the destruction of all of
Israel?
Because Judea and Samaria had no recognized sovereign, apart from the
Ottoman Empire, prior to the illegal Jordanian occupation, the current
Israeli presence in Judea and Samaria cannot possibly be designated as
illegal.
It seems therefore that nothing Israel offers that is less than 100%
of its entire land -- in other words if Israel agrees not to exist --
will affect the Palestinian Authority's willingness to make peace.
In a world ablaze, European governments and companies still see fit to
boycott Israeli companies and products from the so called West Bank. The boycotting parties
claim
to base their actions on the fact that the West Bank is occupied
territory and that the Israeli presence in the West Bank is the one true
obstacle to durable peace.
It is apparently unbeknownst to them that both premises are entirely false.
In the West, the so-called "Green Line" is usually referred to when
the "peace process" is being evaluated. Someone usually states that
Israel should
retreat
behind this Green Line in order to maintain legitimacy and legality.
The Green Line is allegedly synonymous with "the Borders of 1967." This
is a highly misleading semantic trick. By asserting the Green Line as
the borders of 1967, the case is made to sound as if this is the border
from whence the Israelis started an aggressive expansion. The truth is
the opposite. The Green Line is in reality the armistice line of 1949:
the border where the Arab war of extermination was halted and where the
Israelis finally prevented the attempted genocide of their people.
The term "occupied territories," even if not correct, is enough to nonplus the average Israel supporter and send
left-wing and
Muslim
front groups into a twist. It is probably worthwhile to examine the
legal accuracy of the term "occupied" as it is applied to the West Bank.
First, it is important to realize that the West Bank had
no legally recognized sovereign prior to 1948. After the proclamation of the state of Israel in 1948, which then
counted
a scarce 660,920 Jewish inhabitants, Israel, literally on the day of
its birth, was immediately faced with a war of extermination launched by
Egypt, Syria, Lebanon, Jordan and Iraq, complemented by
Saudi Arabian forces fighting under Egyptian command and a
Yemeni contingent.
During this effort to obliterate the nascent state, Jordanian forces
took control of the area that had, from biblical times, been known as
Judea and Samaria.
The Jordanians, in 1950, changed this name to the "West Bank" [of the
Jordan River], apparently in an attempt to semantically strengthen their
case of "occupation" by making the territory sound as if it were a
legitimate part of
their East Bank. The move also appears to be an attempt to delegitimize Israel's claim to the area by de-Judaizing its name
[1] -- a strategy first adopted by Roman emperor Hadrian, when he changed the country's name from
Judea to Palestine, after a nomadic maritime people, the Philistines, who had been in constant armed conflict with the Jews.
Moreover, only Britain, Iraq and Pakistan recognized the Jordanian
occupation of Judea and Samaria. The rest of the world, including
Jordan's Arab allies, never recognized the Jordanian occupation of Judea
and Samaria as legitimate, let alone legal. The same goes for the Gaza
Strip, only there, it was the Egyptians who ended up
illegally occupying the area after the 1948 war of extermination.
During the Six Day War of 1967, Israel was faced with another war of
extermination launched by its Arab neighbors. To survive yet another
attempted genocide, Israeli forces conducted, in response, a war of
defense in which the Israel Air Force destroyed Egyptian aircraft before
enemy troops could reach Israel's fragile borders. In the process of
this defensive war, the Israelis ended up expelling the Jordanians from
the part of Jerusalem they occupied and the West Bank of the Jordan
River: Judea and Samaria.
Because Judea and Samaria had no recognized sovereign, apart from the
Ottoman Empire, prior to the illegal Jordanian occupation, the current
Israeli presence in Judea and Samaria cannot possibly be designated as
illegal. After all, from whom are they occupying the area, save from the
former Ottoman Empire? The area can only be correctly designated as
"disputed" territories, just like Kashmir, the
Western Sahara,
Zubarah,
Thumbs Island, and a lengthy parchment of other
disputed territories.
It has been alleged -- originally by diplomats of the Arab and Muslim
world, and later parroted by a gullible European political elite --
that to leave this dispute unresolved blocks not only the peace process
but also the general stability of the region. Any impartial examination
of facts, however, shows that the Israeli presence in Judea and Samaria
has no significant relationship to either the "peace process" or
regional stability. It is probably just irresistibly convenient for
autocrats to keep telling diplomats to focus on Israel and the
Palestinian problem to throw them -- as well as their own people -- off
the scent of their own questionable governance.
If the Israeli presence in the West Bank, and the "settlements" from
1967 on, are the root cause of the conflict between Israel and the
Palestinians, then why does Article 14 of the
1964 PLO charter
call for the destruction of all of Israel? "The liberation of
Palestine, from an Arab viewpoint, is a national duty. Its
responsibilities fall upon the entire Arab nation, governments and
peoples, the Palestinian peoples being in the forefront. For this
purpose, the Arab nation must mobilize its military, spiritual and
material potentialities; specifically, it must give to the Palestinian
Arab people all possible support and backing and place at its disposal
all opportunities and means to enable them to perform their role in
liberating their homeland."
In 1964, there was not a single Israeli in Judea and Samaria,
nevertheless the PLO called for the obliteration of Israel. It is this
'64 PLO mentality that has pervaded the upper echelons of Palestinian
administration ever since. With the signing of the 1993 Oslo accords,
although PLO leader Yasser Arafat said 'yes' to peace, in the period
following his actions led to the first massive wave of
terror attacks,
known as the "Second Intifada." In 2000, then-Prime Minister Ehud Barak
made Arafat an offer that shocked the world. Barak offered the PLO
nearly everything it demanded, including a state with its capital in
Jerusalem; control of the Temple Mount; the return of approximately 97%
of the West Bank and all of the Gaza Strip, and a $30 billion
compensation package for the 1948 refugees.
[2] Arafat turned this deal down. In 2008, then-Prime Minister Ehud Olmert
offered
Palestinian President Mahmoud Abbas almost 98% of the West Bank, and
again accepted nearly all Palestinian demands. Olmert too, was turned
down.
It seems therefore that nothing Israel offers that is less than 100%
of its entire land -- in other words, if Israel agrees not to exist --
will affect the Palestinian Authority's [PA] willingness to make peace.
The Arabs rejected a plan to partition the land, they did not want peace
when there were no Israelis in Gaza, the West Bank or the
Jordanian-occupied eastern part Jerusalem, and have repeatedly turned
down generous peace offers.
Judea and Samaria are not occupied territories, and the Israeli
presence there has no relationship to the PA's willingness to make
peace.
Why then would European governments and companies boycott the region?
They do not boycott other comparable regions. Even more revealingly, in
2006, the EU even actively aided an occupying power, Turkey, by
approving a $259
million aid package for Turkish occupied Northern Cyprus.
Anti-Israel protestors in Melbourne, Australia in June 2010. (Image source: Wikimedia/Takver)
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Why these double standards and what do they tell us about the morality -- or lack thereof -- of the people who hold them?
As Thomas Friedman
once wrote
"Criticizing Israel is not anti-Semitic, and saying so is vile. But
singling out Israel for opprobrium and international sanction out of all
proportion to any other party in the Middle East is anti-Semitic, and
not saying so is dishonest."
[1] Wim Kortenoeven
, De Kern van de zaakLabels: Boycott/Divestment, Crisis Management, Europe, Heritage, Hypocrisy, Israel, Palestinians, Sanctions